Ray, why do you start with an assumption opposite of what I wrote? My statement “I think we agree that it was written by the Apostle John” has no implication that John didn’t write Revelation. Is your statement just to inflame?

It is my hope to mutually challenge and encourage. Twisting what I write or name calling it not constructive to that end.

I have had a long day and exhausted, but would like to continue a constructive dialog. Can we focus on just one point first, the meaning of “ekklēsia”.

We have the obvious with King James’ instruction that “The old ecclesiastical words to be kept, as the word church, not to be translated congregation.” Perhaps we agree that this was political.

But some translations, such as Darby (1867), or Bishops (1568) use “assembly” or “congregation”.

I suggest that when a word is translated from Greek into English and then using the primary English definition to translate it back to Greek and you end up with a different word, there is a problem. This is the case with “ekklēsia”. Would you agree?